The subjunctive mood is a bit more complex than hypothetical situations, but that is the easiest example to explain. Right now, I can't think of more examples in English that are interpreted as subjunctives, but maybe you can. I want to hear them 13/13

Take, for instance, some utterances with "wish" or "when" like "I wish she could be a Doctor" or "when I get to be a Doctor". Both may be rewritten as "If I/she were a Doctor"; they all express the same meaning, a hypothetical situation that may or may not be 12/13

Even if that is the only case in which English remains invoking through an inflexion the subjunctive mood, there are other cases in which the subjunctive is used pragmatically. 11/13

With the passage of time, the inflexions of the verbs for the subjunctive mood were lost. However, it remained in some cases for the verb to be. When saying "if I were you" or "if he were real", we're casting the lost subjunctive mood. It's practically an archaeological site 10/13

That "wære" is what gives the were of the past simple nowadays, and the were of subjunctive utterances like "if I were you" 9/13

Apparently, this seems to be alien to English grammar, but it is not; at least it wasn't a millennium ago, in Old English. Yes, Old English had a subjunctive mood. Can you guess how the form of the verb to be was? Exactly, wære, the same form used in the past indicative. 8/13

1. Tú eres (present from the indicative mood, real state that occurs now).

2. Tú seas (present from the subjunctive mood, hypothetical state that may or may not be).

3. Sé tú (imperative mood, an order).

Those are the three moods of the Spanish language 7/13

All those Spanish tenses belong to a single mood, indicative. That is the most common tense in which you may speak, but there are two more moods. Moods don't change the temporality of the action; they change, well, the mood. That means that it is not the same to say: 6/13

In English, the only tenses that don't use an auxiliary verb are the present simple and the past simple. In Spanish, we also use the auxiliary in complex tenses, but we use more tenses without an auxiliary. 5/13

Let's take a look at Spanish. My native language, also has tenses, though we have more than English: presente, pretérito perfecto, pretérito imperfecto, futuro simple, futuro compuesto, condicional, pretérito pluscuamperfecto, pretérito anterior, and pretérito indefinido 4/13

I don't need to say that this explanation is completely false. What is happening there is something that deals with the ✨✨mood✨✨ of the verb. You've heard about tenses, but I guess not about the moods. 3/13

However, as a native Spanish speaker and English student, I don't remember being told why "were" was the correct form in that kind of sentence. And if I were told, the answer probably would be "because the sentence means that if I were YOU, and 'you' goes with were". 2/13

I really like "entverzweit" as something which is not branched into two things!!!

ne-twæmed could be interpreted in the same way. Here you have an Old English interpretation of non-binary 6/6

Using a negation before the participle, ne-twæmed, gives a composition that may be translated as something that is not divided into two. If non-binary means that a person is not categorised under the normative division of gender, 5/6

I came up with the Old English verb twæman, which means to divide into two. Its past participle, understood as an adjective, twæmed, may be translated as something that is separated. 4/6

The words that I know for the grammatical gender were not a good option because the etymology of "bi" talks about a division into two, rather than about something related to gender per se. Thus, non-binary is interpreted as not being divided into the two gender categories 3/6

The first thing I considered is how Old English adapted grammatical Latinisms. A pronoun is referred to as "forenama", a literal translation of "pronomen" (previous to a name). 2/6