Huh, some of the most wealthy orgs in the world collectively investing $250M sets a price over $100B. Can someone explain to me why that's not most likely performative favor giving to establish that "validated" valuation?
Huh, some of the most wealthy orgs in the world collectively investing $250M sets a price over $100B. Can someone explain to me why that's not most likely performative favor giving to establish that "validated" valuation?